What is the “New Name” of Isaiah 62:2?

A querist asked, “What is the new name of Isa 62:2?”

James replied:
In my opinion this verse refers to Jerusalem and not to Christians. The verses read:

Isa 62:1-4
1 For Zion’s sake will I not hold my peace, and for Jerusalem’s sake I will not rest, until the righteousness thereof go forth as brightness, and the salvation thereof as a lamp that burneth. 2 And the Gentiles shall see thy righteousness, and all kings thy glory: and thou shalt be called by a new name, which the mouth of the LORD shall name.
3 Thou shalt also be a crown of glory in the hand of the LORD, and a royal diadem in the hand of thy God.
4 Thou shalt no more be termed Forsaken; neither shall thy land any more be termed Desolate: but thou shalt be called Hephzibah, and thy land Beulah: for the LORD delighteth in thee, and thy land shall be married.”

“Thy righteousness” and “thy glory” refers to Jerusalem. She was the one that would no longer be called “Forsaken” or her land called “Desolate”. “Hephzibah” is a good guess as to Jerusalem’s new name.

Rev 2:17 promises a new name to each saint that no one else knows. Rev 19:12 says that Christ also has a new name that no one knows except He Himself. If you look at the seven promises to the churches in Rev 2-3 you will find that none of these promises is realized until after death, because the determination of whether one is faithful till death cannot be made until death. The time at which God determines whether an individual saint will receive these promises or not is made at death (Rev 2:10b). Therefore, the new name would not be received until after death, presumably at the resurrection, for that is what we see with the 144,000. We see the 144,000 newly risen in Rev 7. They had no markings on them until the angels wrote on them. We see these resurrected ones again in Rev 14 where they are standing before the throne of God with God’s name written on them. Jesus promised that Christians would have a secret new name after they were faithful till death. At the same time, they would have the name of God, the name of New Jerusalem, and Christ’s new name written on them (Rev 3:12). Since those newly resurrected saints had God’s name written on them after their resurrection (Rev 14:1), and we see Jesus with His new name after His resurrection (Rev 19:12), then we would expect these risen saints in heaven to also have their secret new names, just like the resurrected Christ does. Since these are the firstfruits (Rev 14:4), then we as the later fruits should be just like them and get our new names after we are risen from the dead.

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Why Was Demon Possession Minimal During the Middle Ages?

A querist asked, “Why would you be confident that demon possession was minimal during the dark ages? I sure would not want to be a peon during that period, would you?”

James replied:
The serfs in medieval Europe were better off than people in a lot of places. Being a serf in AD 500 was not a lot different from being a tenant farmer in AD 1910. Except for some technological advances, being a serf was not much worse than being a farm hand in 1959. The advantage our country has enjoyed was a long period of peace in this land. Maurauders and invading armies were the thing that caused the most trouble to the common people in Europe. The Saracens, Monguls, Germanic tribes, Hungarians, Visigoths, Huns, Vikings, and various other groups often went plundering during this period. It is hard to make a living when people come and destroy them. The thing that Europe had in common was a unified Church that ruled over the hearts of men.

The thousand year reign of Christ would imply that all powers were subject to Him whereever His rule was. I think the time from 345-1345 was the millennium and the place was in Europe. During that time, if Christ was reigning, then He would not have rebellious evil spirits running around loose. I am confident that demon possession was minimual because it was the time of His reign and because Zech 13 and I Cor 13 both require that the evil spirits pass out of the land.

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Is the Cessation of Demon Possession an Indication That the Devil Was Bound?

A querist asked, “So you do not see the cessation of demon possession as an indication that the devil was bound?”

James replies:
I am not sure they were simultaneous. You remember that demon possession was being reduced during the ministry of Christ and the apostles (Mt 8:31, 12:27-29, Mk 7:26, Lk 11:19). At some point after that it ceased; probably about the same time as the prophets of God stopped prophecying. However, the Bible does not say that the demon possession ceased when the Devil was thrown into prison. We just have to guess. He is not the only bad guy. He is just the chief. The non-canonical work of Jubilees has the Devil complaining to God after the Flood that he could not do his job of tempting sinners if God threw all of his demons in the Abyss. God relented, and left him 10% of the total so he could be more effective in tempting men:

Jubilees 10:7-10
7,8 And the Lord our God bade us to bind all. And the chief of the spirits, Mastema, came and said: ‘Lord, Creator, let some of them remain before me, and let them harken to my voice, and do all that I shall say unto them; for if some of them are not left to me, I shall not be able to execute the power of my will on the sons of men; for these are for corruption and leading astray before my judgment, for great is the wickedness of the sons of men.’
9 And He said: Let the tenth part of them remain before him, and let nine parts descend into the
10 place of condemnation.’

I am confident that demon possession was minimal during the 1000 years from AD 345-1345. Other than that, the exact time that demon possession ceased is just a guess.

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How Can Jesus Come in Rev 19 Before the Binding of Satan and the Cessation of Miracles in Rev 20?

A correspondant posed this question:
There were demons active during the time of the apostles:
Mark 16:17 And these signs shall follow them that believe; In my name shall they cast out devils; they shall speak with new tongues;
18 They shall take up serpents; and if they drink any deadly thing, it shall not hurt them; they shall lay hands on the sick, and they shall recover.
19 So then after the Lord had spoken unto them, he was received up into heaven, and sat on the right hand of God.
20 And they went forth, and preached every where, the Lord working with them, and confirming the word with signs following. Amen.

Jesus went back to heaven and he said they would cast out devils after that. And we find this happening in the early church.

Acts 5:16 There came also a multitude out of the cities round about unto Jerusalem, bringing sick folks, and them which were vexed with unclean spirits: and they were healed every one.

Acts 8:7 For unclean spirits, crying with loud voice, came out of many that were possessed with them: and many taken with palsies, and that were lame, were healed.

Now I assume the common thinking is that the unclean spirits ceased at the time prophecy ceased and that the devil was at that time bound. But Satan is not bound until Revelation 20. A whole lot happens, that most of us would think hasn’t happened YET, before Satan is bound in Revelation 20. All that happens in Revelation 1-19 has to happen before Satan is bound and the thousand years begin. So has demon possession ceased, has prophecy ceased, and is the devil bound yet? If so, has everything in Revelation 1-19 already happened? And at what point was the devil bound?

James replies:
This question is from a preterist who believes that all prophecy is fulfilled, even the Second Coming and the Resurrection. The question is therefore designed to show that much of what Christians take to be regarding the end of the world happens before Rev 20 where the Devil is bound following the cessation of prophets and demons. In the querist’s view, the literalists are inconsistent in their thinking because the events in Revelation are chronological and Revelation would place the coming of Christ (Rev 19:14) before the cessation of miracles (Rev 20:3). The problem with this thinking is that Revelation is not strictly chronological.

My view of Revelation is that chapters 8-22 are a prophecy of Christ exercising the power of the seventh seal, the power over the course of human history. However, the prophecy of Christ exercising this power in chapters 8-22 is not a single history, but contains three parallel prophetic histories. That is, God gives a preview of His plan for the Jews (Rev 8-14), the parallel plan for the Nations/Gentiles (Rev 15-19), and the parallel plan for the elect/church (Rev 20-22) that all cover the same time from the cross till the end of the world. The Jew and Gentile sections end with the coming of Christ (Rev 14:15-20, Rev 19:11-21). The section on the church has the coming of Christ near the beginning of its history, and the rest of the section about the church (Rev 21-22) is devoted to its future glory.

The material in the three different sections (Rev 8-14, 15-19, and 20-22) is generally chronological in each section, but you cannot start with chapter 1 and go chronologically through 19. Chapter 4 is the throne room in heaven before the coronation of Christ and the events in chapter 4 happened before the letters to the seven churches were written. Chapter 5 is the coronation of Christ, and it also happened before the letters in Rev 1-3. Chapters 6 and 7 show Jesus exercising six of the powers of the seven seals that give Him all power in heaven and on earth. These six powers are exercised concurrently throughout history from the coronation till the second coming and are topical rather than chronological. Chapters 8-22 show Christ exercising the last seal, His power over the course of human history (God’s plan, His eternal purpose in Christ). The parallel histories themselves select certain significant events to describe, and even the narrative in the parallel histories are sometimes not strictly chronological.

The last section (Rev 20-22) is the parallel history of the church, and Chapter 20 does appear to be chronological, but it covers 2000 years in a few verses. Chapter 20 begins by introducing our adversary, the Devil, and shows him defeated and imprisoned at the beginning of the Millennium (1-3). Verse 4 shows some saints enthroned in heaven while some other saints are still dead. These risen saints on the thrones are the ones that participated with Christ in His resurrection, that is, the first resurrection. We can deduce that the reign of these saints is during the present age in heaven, because there are souls of dead saints present with those that are reigning. I interpret verse 4 like this:

John sees these groups of people in heaven:
1) And I saw thrones, and THEY sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them:
2) and I saw the souls of them that were beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God, and which had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands.

John saw souls of people that were still dead and he saw those reigning on thrones. Then he says, “and THEY lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years.” (Rev 20:4)

The two “theys” tie the ones sitting on the thrones with those that lived and reigned. THEY sat on thrones and THEY lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years. The bodies of souls there in heaven were still dead, but those people sitting on the thrones were living and reigning.

These saints in heaven are ruling and reigning while most of the saints are still dead. Since there are saints that are still dead, Christ has not returned to earth, and the general resurrection has not taken place, just as the text says (“But the rest of the dead lived not again until the thousand years were finished.”). This temporary reign ends before Jesus returns, for He does not appear until after Satan’s little season (Rev 20:3), and the time that Satan begins the battle of Gog and Magog (Rev 20:8–Gog and Magog is the same as Armageddon, Rev 19:19, 16:14-16). Fire comes down from heaven (Rev 20:9) when Jesus returns and fire devours the adversary (Heb 10:27, II Pet 3:7, II Th 1:7-9), but by the time this event transpires, the thousand years are expired (Rev 20:7). The temporary reign of the saints in heaven appears to have been by proxy through the agents of Christ on earth. The reign was during the heyday of the church from 345-1345. At the end of that time the Devil was released. That time was the time of the horrible, horrible Black Plague that killed perhaps 30% of Europe. It was also one of the worst global economic disasters in the history of the world, for the Italian banks also failed at this time and plunged the world into depression. This time also ushered in a hundred years of almost constant warfare in Europe. We also find at this time the resurgance of witches and practice of the black arts. It was also a time of degeneration into wicked lewdness for many. Luther’s reformation was in response to the degeneracy of the time, but in spite of what Luther accomplished, the prince of darkness has been hard at work since that day to prepare the world for his Antichrist.

So, with that backgound laid, let’s look at the querist’s specific questions. They were, “So has demon possession ceased, has prophecy ceased, and is the devil bound yet? If so, has everything in Revelation 1-19 already happened? And at what point was the devil bound?”

Demon possession had to cease at some point. “I will cause the prophets and the unclean spirit to pass out of the land.” (Zech 13:2). This happened some time after the second century, for even some of the apostles (Jude and John) lived until that time, and the prophets lived presumably longer, maybe even till the beginning of the 3rd century (AD 200). Whenever the prophets ceased, the evil spirits would have to be evicted as well.

God tends to keep a level playing field for good and evil. Whenever evil abounds, His prophets tend to be active. Whenever righteousness prevails, his prophecy tends to be scarce. Since we find very little mention of witches or witchcraft until after 1345, the presumption is that they ceased during this time. There seems to have very little of the occult in the West during this thousand years. Now as far as I Cor 13:8 and Zech 13:2, if the prophets and unclean spirits passed out of the land for one day, it would satisfy the prophecy. The requirement is for the prophets to pass out of the land, but the prophets and evil spirits are NOT prohibited from returning. In fact, we know they do return, for two prophets minister to Israel (Rev 11:8) during the 3 1/2 years (Rev 11:3, 13:5) of the reign of the Beast (Antichrist/Man of Sin), and three evil spirits accompany the Dragon, the Beast, and the False Prophet (Rev 16:15). The demons return at the end of the world (Rev 16:15, Rev 9:20).

In my view, at the present time Satan already has already served his time of being bound for 1000 years and has now been released for his “little season”. To specifically answer the querist’s question regarding the fulfillment of everything in Rev 1-19, “No, everything in Rev 1-19 has not happened because those chapters contain parallel histories that include the coming of Christ and the end of the world.” Even in Rev 20 we are not to the part where God returns (Rev 20:9-10) with Jesus (I Thes 4:14). We are only to Rev 20:8 where the Devil is deceiving the nations. In this prophetic history that is parallel to the prophetic histories of Israel and the nations, the return of Christ (v9) follows the time of Satan’s little season (v3). The fulfillment of Rev 20 saw the devil bound in AD 345, released in AD 1345, and he now is deceiving the nations. The process of fulfillment will continue until the appearance of the Antichrist during the last 3.5 years of this age is terminated by the coming of Christ. There is no contradiction in the literalist position, and the fantastic gyrations required by the preterist position once again are seen to be unnecessary and wrong.

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Can God Still Have Any Purpose for Israel Since Their Tribal Identities Are Lost?

A correspondant asked:
You said the Jews are still obligated to keep the Law. How are they supposed to do that when they don’t know what tribes they are from and don’t have the things they need to do it because God Himself destroyed everything?

James replies:
The main tribal requisites that are were pertinent to keeping the Law had to do with the tribes of Levi and Judah. God promised that the Messiah would rise from Judah, and He promised that Levi would not cease being a tribe (Jer 33:21-22). The Jews do in fact know who the descendants of Levi are today, even as Jeremiah said they would. Many of them have the name Cohen, which is a variant of the Hebrew word kohonen, which means “priest”. These Cohens have a strong family similarity in their DNA. However, other than the priests, there were no tribal requirements in order for Israel to obey the Law, and the priests are known.

You are right that God destroyed them, but unlike us, what He destroys, He is able to restore, and He promises to do so. Here is what II Baruch 6:5-10 says of the things of the temple that God destroyed during the siege at carrying away into Babylon:

II Baruch 6:5-10
5 And another angel began to descend from heaven. and said unto them: ‘Hold your lamps, and do not light them till I tell you. 6 For I am first sent to speak a word to the earth, and to place in it what the Lord the Most High has commanded me.’ 7 And I saw him descend into the Holy of Holies, and take from there the veil, and holy ark, and the mercy-seat, and the two tables, and the holy raiment of the priests, and the altar of incense, and the forty-eight precious stones, wherewith the priest was adorned and all the holy vessels of the tabernacle. 8 And he spoke to the earth with a loud voice:
‘Earth, earth, earth, hear the word of the mighty God,
And receive what I commit to you,
And guard them until the last times,
So that, when you are ordered, you may restore them,
So that strangers may not get possession of them.
9 For the time comes when Jerusalem also will be delivered for a time,
Until it is said, that it is again restored for ever.’
10 And the earth opened its mouth and swallowed them up.

There are prophecies that require that the 10 tribes also return and be reunited with Judah (the Jews). I do not know how God has maintained these Ten Tribes, but He says that He will do so, and I believe Him. Hosea 1:11 says, “Then shall the children of Judah and the children of Israel be gathered together, and appoint themselves one head, and they shall come up out of the land: for great [shall be] the day of Jezreel.” Also, Ezekiel 37 requires that Israel and Judah be reunited. This general reunion appears to happen very close to the end of the world, for Hosea says that once the two nations are reunited, they select a common head, and “come up out of the land”! The only time Israel will leave the land of their inheritance is to go to the Sheep Pen at Bozrah to await the Lord’s return (Micah 2:12-13).

Here is a non-canonical account of the time of the return of the Ten Tribes as found in
II Esdras 13:40-47
40] Those are the ten tribes, which were carried away prisoners out of their own land in the time of Osea the king, whom Salmanasar the king of Assyria led away captive, and he carried them over the waters, and so came they into another land.
[41] But they took this counsel among themselves, that they would leave the multitude of the heathen, and go forth into a further country, where never mankind dwelt,
[42] That they might there keep their statutes, which they never kept in their own land.
[43] And they entered into Euphrates by the narrow places of the river.
[44] For the most High then shewed signs for them, and held still the flood, till they were passed over.
[45] For through that country there was a great way to go, namely, of a year and a half: and the same region is called Arsareth.
[46] Then dwelt they there until the latter time; and now when they shall begin to come,
[47] The Highest shall stay the springs of the stream again, that they may go through: therefore sawest thou the multitude with peace.

So a multitude of sources testify that all Israel will be united before the end of the world and her fortunes will be restored. We can either believe it or not, but God says it.

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Can Christians Discriminate Against People in the World?

Since Gal 3:27-28 say:
“27 For as many of you as were baptized into Christ have put on Christ.
28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free, there is neither male nor female; for you are all one in Christ Jesus.”
Is it not therefore sinful for Christians to make distinctions between Jews and Gentiles?

James replies:
God has given men three comprehensive codes of law to govern their lives. The original one dates from the time of Adam. It is the law by which all men sinned before the Flood and after the Flood up until the time of the giving of the Law to Israel. At the giving of the Law to Israel, there were two laws from God in effect at the same time. There was a new law just for Israel (Dt 4:6-8, 5:3), but it had no effect on the existing law for the Gentiles. The Gentiles continued to be able to sin by violating the original law, just like they had done from the beginning. This situation of parallel laws continued up until Pentecost. On the day of Pentecost in AD 30 men were able for the first time to enter the kingdom of heaven. When they established their citizenship in heaven by B-R-C-B they were delivered from the power of darkness and translated into the kingdom of God’s dear son (Col 1:13). This new kingdom had a new law, the law of Christ. Under this law the citizens of His kingdom may not discriminate against one another by race, condition of earthly servitude, or gender. It had no effect on the other two laws for the people who did not become citizens.

All three laws continue in parallel with each other, but they are in effect for different groups of people. God’s original law for man continues to be in effect for the bulk of humanity. The Law of Moses is in effect for Israel, and the Law of Christ is in effect for the citizens of the Kingdom of Heaven (KOH). For citizens of the KOH (the church) it is unlawful for us to discriminate between Jews and Gentiles, men and women, or slave and free in the kingdom. However, the Law still requires Israelites to maintain separation from unholy people in the world, but for Jew and Gentile brethren in the church, “What God has cleansed, do not call unholy”.

However, Israel was a type of a holy people coming out from among the defiled and keeping themselves pure. They were the type of Christianity. Paul speaks of the Christian’s relationship with worldly people in 2 Cor 6:14-17. In verse 14 Paul says, “Do not be yoked together with unbelievers. For what do righteousness and wickedness have in common? Or what fellowship can light have with darkness?”

Paul goes on to command Christians in verse 17 that they must, “Come out from [the unbelievers] and be separate, says the Lord. Touch no unclean thing, and I will receive you”. From these verses we can see that Paul requires different behavior toward those that are brethren in the kingdom (no discrimination) and those that are in the world (don’t fellowship their unclean behavior). To answer the question, “Isn’t it sinful to discriminate between Jews and Gentiles”, Paul says not only is it not forbidden, it is required.

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Is the Law of Moses Still in Effect for Israel?

A correspondant wrote:
For assuredly, I say to you, till heaven and earth pass away, one jot or one tittle will by no means pass from the law till all is fulfilled. [IF ZECHARIAH 14 HAS NOT BEEN FULFILLED, NOT ONE JOT OR TITTLE HAS PASSED FROM THE LAW AND WE ARE STILL BOUND TO KEEP IT.]

James replies:
You are correct about the Law still being in effect for the Jews since Zech 14 has not been fulfilled. However, you erroneously infer that if the Law is still in effect for Israel that provisions of the Law affect you and me. You should notice that the jurisdiction of the Law is and always has been the Jews only.

Dt 4:6 Keep therefore and do [these statues and judgments]; for this [is] your wisdom and your understanding in the sight of the nations, which shall hear all these statutes, and say, Surely this great nation [is] a wise and understanding people.
8 And what nation [is there so] great, that hath statutes and judgments [so] righteous as all this law, which I set before you this day?
(Dt 4:6, 8)

Dt 5:3 The LORD made not this covenant with our fathers, but with us, [even] us, who [are] all of us here alive this day.

The Jews are still obligated to keep the Law since all of the prophets have not been fulfilled and the end of the world has not come. Since the Law condemns sinners and all have sinned, Israel needs salvation, but the Law cannot save them, for all it can offer is the blood of bulls and goats (Heb 10:4). Because of sin, it cannot justify but only condemn. Any that would be saved must come to Christ, because their Law has made them sinners (Rom 3:23).

The fact that the Law only applied to Israel does not mean that the rest of men are without law. God has given men three comprehensive codes of law to govern their lives. The original one dates from the time of Adam. It is the law by which all men sinned before the Flood and after the Flood up until the time of the giving of the Law to Israel. At the giving of the Law to Israel, there were two laws from God in effect at the same time. There was a new law just for Israel (Dt 4:6-8, 5:3), but it had no effect on the existing law for the Gentiles. The Gentiles continued to be able to sin by violating the original law, just like they had done from the beginning. This situation of parallel laws continued up until Pentecost. On the day of Pentecost men were able for the first time to enter the kingdom of heaven. When they established their citizenship in heaven by Belief-Repentance-Confession-Baptism (B-R-C-B) they were delivered from the power of darkness and translated into the kingdom of God’s dear son (Col 1:13). This new kingdom had a new law, the law of Christ. Under this law the citizens of His kingdom may not discriminate against one another by race, condition of earthly servitude, or gender. It had no effect on the other two laws to which still applied to the people who did not become citizens.

All three laws continue in parallel with each other, but they are in effect for different groups of people. God’s original law for man continues to be in effect for the bulk of humanity. The Law of Moses is in effect for Israel, and the Law of Christ is in effect for the citizens of the Kingdom of Heaven (KOH). For citizens of the KOH (the church) it is unlawful for us to discriminate between Jews and Gentiles, men and women, or slave and free in the church. The Law still requires Israelites to maintain separation from unholy people in the world, but for Jew and Gentile brethren in the church, “What God has cleansed, do not call unholy” (Acts 10:15).

Paul says that God hardened Israel in order that He might have mercy upon all (Rom 11:32), the Jew during the Christian dispensation, and the Gentile during the time that God gave them up before the cross (Rom 1:24, 26). God doesn’t just require Jews to do things that they can’t do, He does the same for us. God requires that we live sinlessly, but we can’t (Rom 3:23, I Ki 8:46), or if we sin then we must pay the wages of sin (death) which we also can’t pay, because our death is already obligated by God’s curse on Adam (Gen 3:19, Rom 5:12-14). As a result, if anybody is saved, God must have grace and mercy upon them (Eph 2:8, Rom 11:32).

“Saved” means to be granted eternal life. It is NOT the same thing as becoming a son of God or sanctification. Eternal life means your body rises from the dead never to die again. Sons of God are both saved (raised from the dead) and sanctified (made holy) thereby gaining access to the most holy God. The saved of the nations will inherit eternal life, but they will NOT have access to God, because they are not holy. They did not gain access to the blood of Christ through obedient faith, and they therefore were not made holy by it (Heb 10:22).

The means of the salvation of the nations is Christ, even if they never heard of Him. The proof of this is Mt 25. There all the nations are gathered before Christ after the resurrection (Mt 25:31-32). The sons of God (I Cor 6:2) make a separation of the sheep and the goats and then array them before Christ. He passes the sentence on the nations not based on H-B-R-C-B or whether they used one cup or had instrumental music, but based on whether they had shown love in their lives to others or not (Mt 25:34-36). These people didn’t even know what He was talking about (Mt 25:37-39). They didn’t know about Jesus and the Bible, because they were not familiar with the prophecy of their own judgment in Mt 25, but they did in fact gain access to life through Jesus Christ, their merciful Judge.

In the ultimate sense, those saved in Mt 25:31ff actually don’t access the Father, but can only walk in the light of His house and throne (Rev 21:24-27, En 50:2-3). Only the sons of God are rendered holy by obedient faith. The holy sons of God are the ones that have access. Not only are these elect saved, but they also are made holy by having Christ’s blood sprinkled on them at baptism (Heb 10:22). This holiness enables them to access the highway of holiness (Isa 35:8) and to enter heaven (New Jerusalem) and to go into the presence of God (Rev 22:1-5, 15).

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Is God’s Throne David’s Throne?

A correspondant wrote:
I believe that Acts 2[:30] speaks for itself and really needs no further comment

James responds:
Of course Acts 2:30 is in the Bible, but what does it mean? Does this verse say that Jesus is NOW sitting on David’s throne? If so, where? V34 says He is NOW sitting on God’s throne, as also this verse says:

I also overcame, and am set down with my Father in HIS throne. (Rev 3:21)

God’s throne and David’s throne are obviously not the same. Jesus WILL sit on David’s throne, but not yet. “But NOW My kingdom is not from here” (Jn 18:36), but it will be later (Lk 1:32-33). Sitting on God’s throne is only UNTIL all enemies are subdued under Him (I Cor 15:25-26, Acts 2:34-35). However, Jesus’ sitting on David’s throne has no end (Lk 1:33).

Jesus will sit on God’s throne with all authority in heaven and on earth until He has conquered the last enemy, death (I Cor 15:25-26). Then Jesus Himself will be subject to the Father (I Cor 15:28). So, if Christ is subordinate to the Father, He is no longer ruling on God’s throne (I Cor 15:28), but yet Jesus has a throne of His own glory (Mt 25:31, 19:28) on which He will have a name that is above every name in the world to come (Eph 1:21). His reign on this throne has no end (Lk 1:33).

My view that Jesus is now ruling on God’s throne is not arrayed against scripture. Luke said God raised up Jesus TO sit on David’s throne. He did not say that Jesus is already sitting on it. In fact Luke says that Jesus is NOT yet ruling on earth and will not until all His enemies are made His footstool. Those that place Jesus on David’s throne at the present hour are the ones that say Jesus is wrong when He says that His kingdom is not now of this world. David’s throne IS of this world, but Jesus’ kingdom is not now. He cannot be sitting on a throne of this world and not have a kingdom in it. Therefore, Jesus is not yet sitting on David’s throne.

Lk 19:12-27 shows that Jesus went to heaven to receive the kingdom of David from the Father, but His citizens sent a message to God that they did not want Jesus ruling them (Lk 12:14) and were in rebellion to Him. After a long time (Mt 25:19), Jesus returns to earth (Lk 19:15), judges His servants (Lk 19:15-26) and slays those wicked citizens that opposed His rule (Lk 19:27). Then will He sit on the throne of David and His kingdom will have no end.

Jesus is now sitting on God’s throne (Rev 3:21), but there is a time coming when He will give up God’s throne and sit on His own throne (Rev 3:21, Lk 1:33). Here is what the Bible says about Jesus giving up God’s throne:

The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou on my right hand, UNTIL I make thy foes thy footstool. Acts 2:35-36

Then [cometh] THE END, when he shall have DELIVERED UP THE KINGTOM TO GOD, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power.
For he must reign, TILL he hath put all enemies under his feet.
The last enemy [that] shall be destroyed [is] death.
For he hath put all things under his feet. But when he saith all things are put under [him, it is] manifest that he is excepted, which did put all things under him.
And when all things shall be subdued unto him, THEN shall the Son also himself BE SUBJECT unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all.
I Cor 15:24-28

Each of the Godhead has His own speical role in the scheme of redemption. There was a time when Jesus emptied Himself, and became a man. Now God has highly exalted Jesus and set Him at His own right hand. He will sit on God’s throne UNTIL the last enemy, death (Rev 3:21, Acts 2:35-36, 1 Co 15:26), is destroyed, at which time Jesus Himself will step down from God’s throne and assume His eternal rule on David’s throne.

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A Hollow Earth?

 A questioner asked what I thought of the Hollow Earth hypothesis that says the planet Earth is either wholly hollow or otherwise contains a substantial interior space.

My answer is that it is plausible that there are significant inclusions (hollow places) in the interior of the earth.  The Bible teaches that there is a bottomless pit (a globe circling tunnel with an entrance shaft?), and such a structure is an inclusion by definition.  However, compared to the total volume of the earth, it is probably negligibly small.

There are other inclusions, however, that probably are more substantial than the bottomless pit. My theory is that the center of the earth is hyper pressurized water and is not hollow.  The center of the earth could then serve as a reservoir for supplying the worldwide irrigation system (fountains of the great deep) implied in Genesis 2:6 and Isaiah 30:25, 41:18. An underground irrigation system is a series of tunnels underlying the whole earth and if it existed, it would provide a substantital amount of inclusions in the earth.  The existence of an underground irrigation system that would presumably need to be supplied from below and thus would support a water core for the earth is supported by an article I recently read on natural gas. The article said that natural gas cavities underlie practically all of North America, and these cavities are interconnected.  I believe these cavities are the remains of an underground irrigation system that was rendered inoperative by the sediment from the Flood.  The underground irrigation system’s operation will be restored on the new earth.  These natural gas caves, of course, are a significant volume of subterranean cavities, though they are not in the center of the earth.
 
There is further evidence for an underground irrigation system and water at the center of the earth to be found in the existence of hot springs. There are known hot springs (380 C) in the great deeps of the oceans that supply minerals, particularly hydrogen sulfide, in sufficient quantity to support an ecosystem that DOES NOT rely on photosynthesis!  Clearly, if a ecosystem can exist off various nutrients coming up from the interior of the earth in the absence of sunlight, this has to be by design and was therefore in place by Day 6 of the creation, because God says He created all things in six days (Ex 20:11). These deep sea springs (Job 38:16) probably at one time were not confined to rare instances in the great deeps of the oceans.

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“These things” and “This Generation” in Mt 24

Preterists claim that most of Mt 24, such as where it speaks of the stars falling from the sky is figures of speech or symbols.  The preterists read Mt 24:34 where it says “these things” were to happen in “this generation” and assume Jesus refers to the generation then living.  This preterist position has some difficulties, and I have two questions for their consideration:

1) Isn’t “these things” referring to what Jesus said before, rather that what He says after?
2) What generation is under discussion?

If the preterists are going to use “this generation” in Mt 24:34, the preterists have to show:
1) “These things” in verse 34 include the things after verse 34 when there are some “buts” in there (v36, 37), and Jesus’ statement in verse 34 appears to be a summary statement of what He said before rather than an introduction to new material that follows.
2) “This generation” referred to the people to whom Jesus spoke rather than the generation that was to be living when the fig tree of Israel recovered from its dormancy and had “green leaves” as a nation again.

If the preterists can establish the two premises above (they can’t), they still have a further need to establish that “sun into darkness and moon into blood” is a figure of speech, and the preterists need to show that they know what the supposed figure of the stars falling from the sky means.  Since none of the above things can be established, the preterists have no grounds to object to the idea that the “last days” includes the days in the last 2000 out of 6000 years of the earth.

My “last days” of 2000 years is only 1/3 of the days of the earth, less than half, so they are literally the “last days”.  Since when does “last” have to mean “an itsy bitsy bit”?  Last means that which is at the end.  It doesn’t specify how much.  The preterists acknowledge that lots of Joel’s prophecy did not happen on Pentecost and therefore the last days did not end at Pentecost, but Isaiah promised that when God spoke, none of the prophecies that God made would “lack its mate” of an event that fulfilled it (Isa 34:16).  Therefore, should we not look for the termination of the last days to be at the time when none of Joel’s prophecy’s is lacking its mate?  What possible reason would anybody have for ending Joel’s last days at the destruction of Jerusalem (DOJ) when none of the stuff Joel mentioned happened then, and most certainly “the great and glorious day of the Lord” did not come then.

It would be interesting to know what day at the DOJ was supposed to be “the” day, “THE great and glorious day of the Lord”, because every one of Joel’s promises was supposed to be fulfilled BEFORE that day.  Was it the day that the temple was looted and Jerusalem was burned?  Every one of Joel’s prophecies happened before that day?  Can the preterists prove it?  If not, then we can still look for their fulfillment, for not one of Joel’s prophecies will lack its mate.

If the sackcloth sun and the bloody moon are just hyperbole describing an awful time of God’s wrath on a disobedient people, how is this hyperbole supposed to all be fulfilled BEFORE the worst day of all?  But that’s what the text requires.  All of Joel’s stuff is to happen BEFORE the temple is looted and the city burned or whatever it is that happens on the great an notable day of the Lord.  So the siege where people ate their own dung and drank their urine and barbequed their babies is the sackcloth sun and the bloody moon, but the really great and glorious day is the sack of God’s temple, the murder of all His priests, the destruction of the nation of Israel, and burning the city?  This is a ludicrous theory.

Peter said “this is that which was spoken by the prophet Joel” on the day of Pentecost in AD 33.  Peter’s statement therefore marks at least the beginning of the fulfillment of Joel’s prophecy, but not everything Joel said was fulfilled on the day Peter announced that the fulfillment of Joel 2 had begin.  My view has all of Joel’s prophecy fulfilled in the last days, exactly as Joel specified.  There is nothing postponed of all of Joel’s prophecies.  They all happen in the last days BEFORE the great and notable day of the Lord.  Furthermore, the preterists can’t prove that even ONE of the things Joel specified actually happened at the DOJ though the preterists agree with me that we can tell that some of them did happen on Pentecost.  How can the preterists tell that they happened at the DOJ?  What is the preteristsr evidence?  All of Joel’s prophecies have to come true before the DOJ.  Can the preterists prove that old men dreamed dreams and there was fire and blood and vapor of smoke in the heavens, etc before the great and glorious day of burning of God’s temple and killing His priests occurred?

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