Does a List of Commands Constitute a Creed?

A creed is a summary of NT teaching that is bound on others. You cannot
come to faith in Christ without forming a view of what is right and what a
Christian must do. Do you believe that anything that one might choose to do
is okay with God? If not, then one have a basis for what he does in the
Word. Anyone taught in the Word has a list of things that are right and
wrong, but that does make them a creed. A creed is an authoritative writing
that must be obeyed if one is to be considered acceptable. The Bible is
only thing that has that authority, but to understand what it says, you have
to extract from it. Forming a list of things that it teaches is not a
creed. It is simply what the Bible says. Paul has lists (Gal 5:19-22, Rom
13:9). Peter has lists (II Pet 1:5-8). Did the apostles form creeds by
giving us lists of good and bad things? A list of prescribed behaviors is
not a creed unless it is enforced as God’s word.

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What Place Do Examples Hold in Establishing Authority?

Many have objected to the CENI (command, example, and necessary inference) methodology that is used to detect requirements in Christ’s law, saying it is too legalistic. However, if there is no law, then men cannot sin. We know there is sin, so law must exist. How can we establish requirements that Christ’s levys upon Christians? Most people agree that when the Bible says, “Thou shalt not kill” (Rom 13:9), that Christians are obligated to obey that law. Sometimes disagreements arise as to the meaning of the law, for example, one Christian may believe Romans 13 forbids capital punishment or serving in the military. Another may not, and they may practice different things as a result of their understanding, but God is able to make His servant stand when a servant honestly misunderstands the application of a law (Rom 14:4). However, it is one thing to say that a servant stands or falls to his master and quite
another to say that examples are not binding. It is also quite different to say that if we are not perfectly obedient to Christ then we are doomed to hell. That is what I don’t believe, but such a belief does not argue against TRYING to be perfect, nor does it say that because differences exist
on the application of CENI that we should stop using it. We must obey the apostles, for they are the ambassadors for Christ (II Cor 5:20), and the things that they have to say are the commandments of the Lord (I Cor 14:37). You can only extract law from what they say by the process of command,
example or necessary inference.

People say they have real problems with making examples binding. Well, there can be problems applying examples if you go to extremes, but you also have to consider Paul’s COMMAND to follow his example. Here’s what he says,

The things which ye both learned and received and heard and saw in me, these things do (Php 4:9)

Brethren, join in following my example, and observe those who walk according to the pattern you have in us (Php 3:17)

Paul said what we observe him doing, we are to do. The fact that brethren will sometimes disagree with what examples to bind does nothing to negate Paul’s command that we are to follow his example. It is a legitimate discussion as to what constitutes a binding example, but there is a command
to obey examples.

Hebrews 7:14 says under some circumstances there is legitimate force in the silence of scripture. Hebrews makes the argument that Moses spake nothing concerning priests coming from Judah (Heb 7:14), but priests of Judah are prohibited by the positive command to ordain priests of the sons of Aaron (Ex 28:41). When God has specified, His silence does not authorize. God does not have to enumerate every unauthorized behavior when He has specified what He wants done. Paul demonstrates what can be done in an assembly, and commands us to follow his example. His example excludes things we cannot observe him doing. We cannot participate in just any behavior that we might imagine and expect it to be pleasing to God, because God has specified what He wants done in the assembly. The only things we observe the NT church doing in its public assemblies on a regular basis were praying, partaking of the LS, giving of their means, singing, and teaching. We are commanded to follow Paul’s example to do that. What is postively commanded for the assembly limits what may be done there. Where the NT is silent regarding some behavior in the assembly, it is prohibited by what what has been specified. Paul gave us examples of what is to be done in the assembly, and we can learn from his example. However, not everything Paul did is binding, so people differ on what is incidental and what is necessary when binding examples. There are differences of opinion regarding what examples and what aspects of examples are binding, but we must nonetheless grapple with it, for the apostles commanded it, even as they commanded, “Thou shalt not kill”.

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Does Christ Have a Law or Just Grace?

Questioner: Please elaborate on “God now has three concurrent laws”. I assume that you mean LOM, LOG, and LOC. It seems to me that Christ dissolved the distinction between Jew and Gentile such that there is now no Jewish kingdom and no Gentile kingdom but rather now just one kingdom consisting of both Jew and Gentile, thus two of those three laws are no longer in effect.

James: God has had law for men to obey from the beginning of the world. Adam sinned because he disobeyed God’s law, for sin in the transgression of law (I Jn 3:4). From Adam to Sinai every man lived under law from God, for sin was possible (Gen 4:7, 18:20, 39:9, 42:22). When God gave the LOM at Sinai, He gave it only to Israel (Dt 4:8, 5:2-3). However, it continued to be possible for the Gentiles to sin, even after the LOM was given to Israel (Rom 1 & 2, 3:23). It is obvious that the LOG was NOT ended at Sinai, but ran in parallel with the LOM for many centuries. That establishes the clear possibility of two different laws of God existing simultaneously without any interference with each other because they have different jurisdictions over different people. When Jesus came, He flatly stated that not the smallest part of the LOM would pass from the LOM until the end of the world. You cannot harmonize the complete destruction of the LOM with Jesus’ statement.

There is nothing in principle that prohibits as many laws as God wants to have, running in parallel as long as they have different jurisdictions. The Federal Government does this repeatedly. The same Federal Government has different laws for soldiers (the UCMJ), territories, and states, and probably others. They operate concurrently, backed by the same authority, because they have jurisdiction over different people and serve different purposes.

As far as the LOM is concerned, it matters not a fig to Gentiles whether it exists or not. We never have been under it, and whether it exists or not is irrelevant as long as we do not have Christians who are ethnic Jews worshipping with us. People react to the idea that the LOM continues to exist as if I advocated that Christians should keep the LOM. God forbid! Christ is the end of the LOM for every one that believes (Rom 10:4). Like you said, God dissolved the distinction between Jew and Gentile in Christ (Gal 3:27-28). “In Christ” is the only place, however, that He said the distinction ceased to exist. To get into Christ where the distinction is dissolved, you must put on Christ (Gal 3:27).

Questioner: Also, you seem to use “law” and “a law” interchangeably. Do you mean by “a law” a “system of law”? Do you think that Christ’s rule is primarily by law? If so then please elaborate.

James: Christ’s rule is by law, for “rule” is meaningless without law, and Christ rules (Mt 28:18, Acts 2:34-35). Law is fundamental to God, for it establishes order, and God is not the author of confusion (I Cor 14:33). “Grace” is what is given to sinners that have violated law. A law of grace is a euphamism for a system where law breakers can receive grace instead of justice. Grace does not exist where there is no law. Grace rules nothing. Law rules. Grace follows law breaking. Grace could not justly be administered until Christ died to make an end of sin (Dan 9:24). There was even a question regarding God’s justice in passing over the sins of the ancients. Paul shows that God was just in waiting to extract the just penalty from sinners until the debt was paid in full by Christ (Rom 3:26).

Questioner: I also note with interest that the first specifics noted in your lesson about the LOC is “five acts in a Sunday assembly”. One must make a lot of assumptions to put that statement together. It’s quite a leap IMO to say that that is first correct in the first place and then, if it is correct, that it is part of either law or a law. Please elaborate.

James: I showed that these acts are authorized. I don’t believe that I made the argument that they were exclusive. Other things such as selection of elders and the audition of missionaries may be done in the assembly, but these are irregular events.

Christians are not to forsake the assembling of themselves together (Heb 10:25). There are things that are to be done when they come together (I Cor 14:23). I listed those things that were commonly done when brethren assemble and the scripture that authorizes them. The permissible things that they may do in the assembly we may see by examining the behavior of the apostles (Php 4:9) and those that taught others what they learned from the apostles (II Tim 2:2).

Questioner: IMO, most of what we do as Christians is “want to” rather than “have to”. Do you agree with that?

James: One must want to follow the Law of Christ in order to become a Christian (Acts 2:38). In that respect, I agree that we must want to follow and serve Christ. I do not agree that anything that we might want to do is acceptable to Him (Lk 6:46). Christ has a standard (Law) that determines “decency and in order” and what is acceptable service to Him in our assemblies (I Cor 14:40). I do not make the argument that every act must be done every time we assemble. The Lord’s supper and the contribution are to be done on the First Day of the Week (Acts 20:7, I Cor 16:1-2). No frequency is specified for the other authorized activities.

Questioner: If so then how would you harmonize that with living “under law”? I’m not saying that we do not live under law. I believe that we do. But I want to understand how you understand this point and the nature of why Christians submit to Christ. It seems to me that if we live “under law” then ultimately that law will kill us, just as that is the purpose of law.

James: It is the nature of law to kill, for the wages of sin is death (Rom 6:23), and the transgression of law is sin (I Jn 3:4). That is all that it can do. It cannot save. The Law of Christ will kill (Mt 25:30), but His grace makes us alive (Eph 2:8). That is why Jesus had to die, for “all have sinned and come short of the glory of God” (Rom 3:23). The death of Christ enabled grace, but it did not do away with law. Christ is a king, and He enforces the Father’s will (Eph 1:5, 9, Col 1:9, Heb 13:21), and as supreme king (Mt 28:18) His will is law. Grace only comes into play when we violate Christ’s law. Other than that, we do not need grace. We do need law to regulate our behavior to avoid chaos, but law and grace are not mutually exclusive. They gracefully coexist, and grace cannot exist without law.

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What is Law?

I think a discussion of the nature of law and of God’s law in particular would be beneficial.

Law is a command issued by an authority that is backed by a penalty for disobedience. Law is only effective where the authority has jurisdiciton. That is, the authority’s law does not apply where he does not rule. Hence, we have various law codes because there are many different jurisdictions under different authorities. This situation is reflected in our federal, state and local governments.

God also has a law. When one transgresses God’s law, God calls that disobedience “sin” (I Jn 3:4). God has always had law. Law is inherent in nature, and God also gave the first man law to regulate his behavior (Gen 2:17). Later, after man sinned and was able to discern good and evil, God gave a more comprehensive law. This legal code from God that He gave after the Fall sometimes has been called “the Law of the Gentiles”. Clearly, men from Adam on down were sinners, because God had a law for men, and they transgressed it (Gen 4:7). This “universal moral code” applied to every man until Moses.

At Sinai, God gave a new law. This new law only applied to special group of people (Dt 4:7-8, 5:2-3). It came to be known as the Law of Moses (Josh 8:31), or, more frequently, “the Law” (Ex 24:12, Dt 4:44, 29:21, Josh 1:8, etc.). The Law of Moses (LOM) was a burdensome law designed to bring an unruly people to maturity (Gal 3:24, 19), but it ONLY applied to Israel. Now, when the LOM came, and it did not apply to the nations/Gentiles, that did not mean that the Gentiles could no longer sin. The Law of the Gentiles (LOG) was not repealed by the advent of the LOM, but the LOG continued in parallel with the LOM. The two laws could co-exist because they applied to two different people and had different jurisdictions. They did not conflict with one another, though they are very different, because they applied to two distinct groups of people.

Notice the important points about what we have just studied. There was a law, and people could sin, long before the Law of Moses. The Law of the Gentiles was not repealed by the introduction of a new law, for the two laws had different jurisdictions. There is no difficulty in two laws from God co-existing, even for centuries.

Now let’s fast forward from Sinai to Pentecost. During this time God was dealing with two sets of men with two separate laws. After Jesus’ death, burial and resurrection, Jesus ascended back up on high where He offered His blood as an eternal sacrifice for sin (Heb 9:12). God accepted His sacrifice as the legal solution for sin and because of Jesus’ sacrifice, God highly exalted Him (Php 2:8) and sat Him at His own right hand until all of Christ’s enemies are made the footstool of His feet (Acts 2:34-35). On the Pentecost following Jesus’ ascension, Jesus sent the Holy Spirit who then revealed that Jesus had been made both Lord and Christ (Acts 2:36).

The implications of Jesus being made Lord are several. Because Jesus has all power in heaven and on earth, He now has the power to make laws. Christ has a kingdom now into which we are translated when we are translated out of the power of darkness (Col 1:13). Once we become a Christian, our citizenship is in heaven (Php 3:20), and we look to Christ for our laws, for He is our King. There are some things that King Jesus requires of His subjects that were not required of any other people. On the first day of the week, His citizens meet to partake of the Lord’s Supper (Acts 20:7), to sing (I Cor 14:23), to pray (I Tim 2:8), to give and (I Cor 16:1-2) to study His Law (I Cor 14:26-28). These were things that neither the Jews nor the Gentiles were obligated to do, because the people in the world are not under the Law of Christ, because they have not been translated out of the power of darkness, and are not in the kingdom of Christ. It is only when one becomes a Christian that one is translated into Christ’s kingdom and becomes amenable to His law.

When Christ became king and established the law of Christ for His people, it had no effect on the two laws that were already in existence. It had no effect on those laws because those laws applied to different groups of people. In the same way that the LOM had no effect on the efficacy of the LOG, the LOC did not conflict with the existing laws because it only applies to those called out people that voluntarily pledge allegience to Christ. Those that become Christians, whether Jew or Gentile, are all one in Christ Jesus (Gal 3:28), and live under the Law of Christ.

Acts 21:20 shows that the Law did not cease to be efficacious at Pentecost, for Jewish believers kept the Law of Moses for many years after Christ was crowned king. Paul even kept the Law while he was in Israel, for it was the civil law of the land. Likewise, many Christian Jews kept the dietary, festival, and cleanliness laws, because it was ingrained into their culture, and to not keep it offended their conscience (Rom 14:1-14). Paul revealed that even as Christians it was okay to do that in our personal conduct. One could even be circumcised if that was a personal choice (Acts 16:3), but it could not be forced upon others as a doctrinal requirement (Gal 2:3-5).

When a person becomes a Christian, his first allegience is to Christ’s law as supreme. He must still deal with federal, state and local laws, for these do not go away when one becomes a Christian. However, when the king requires that we must offer sacrifice to an idol, that is where we draw the line. Christ’s law trumps civil law when the two conflict.

Some people object to the idea that because we live under grace, that Christ even has a law. However, since Christ is supreme, whenever He says do something, then that is a law, whether He specifically calls it that or not. For example, Paul wrote, “The things which ye both learned and received and heard and saw in me, these things do: and the God of peace shall be with you” (Php 4:9). There are other laws as well, such as

Romans 13:9 For this, Thou shalt not commit adultery, Thou shalt not kill, Thou shalt not steal, Thou shalt not bear false witness, Thou shalt not covet; and if there be any other commandment, it is briefly comprehended in this saying, namely, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself.

Clearly, then, even though we live under grace, Christ has a law. If He did not have a law, we could not sin, for “where there is no law, neither is there transgression” (Rom 4:15), and the Bible teaches “all have sinned, and fall short of the glory of God” (Rom 3:23).

The Law of Moses continued in active, public observance for many years after Pentecost. However, when Titus and the Roman armies came, the temple worship and the ceremonial aspects of the Law vanished away (Heb 8:13). To read the fact that the public, ceremonial aspects of the Law vanished and to then conclude that the LOM itself ceased to be of legal effect is a mistake, for Jesus promised that “Till heaven and earth pass away, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass away from the law, till all things be accomplished” (Mt 5:18).

The public observance of the LOM ceased several times before in Israel’s history, but the public observance of the Law did nothing to abrogate its legal efficacy. For example, the temple worship ceased during the carrying away into Babylonian captivity (Jer 27:21, 28:6, Ps 79:1), but the cessation of temple worship had no effect on the efficacy of the Law to Israel. The temple worship also ceased for 3 1/2 years during the occupation of Israel by the Syrian king, Antiochus Epiphanes (Dan 11:31). The proper temple worship also ceased during the reign of Manasseh, King of Judah (II Ki 21:3-7), so much so that even the book of the Law was lost (II Ki 22:8). In none of these cases, however, did the Law itself cease to be the law that applied to Israel. Therefore, when we note that the public observance of the LOM has vanished, that has no effect on its applicability to Israel, and it has no effect on Christianity, for we are a called out people that is neither Jew nor Gentile (Gal 3:28) that live under a different law.

God now has three concurrent laws operating, but they apply to three different peoples. They do not interfere with one another, even though their statutes are different, any more than the concurrent laws of the nations interfere with one another, because they apply to different people. As Christians, we render allegience to Christ as our King, and obey His laws and receive His grace (I Jn 1:7).

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Singing and Making Melody in Your Heart

A querist wrote:
>If the phrase “singing AND making melody in your heart to the Lord” means
>both singing AND making melody” have to occur in order for an individual
>to be acceptable to God, then why doesn’t speaking to one another in
>psalms AND hymns AND spiritual songs” have to occur in order to be
>acceptable to God?

Time is necessarily involved in singing songs, but the frequency of singing each type is not specified. Therefore, the frequency of singing a specific kind of song is not bound. The grammatical structure does require that all of the three types of songs be used. However, if you are going to use them, they must be used in sequence. If you are going to use them in sequence, what is their frequency in that sequence? The time period is not specified.
You cannot logically infer that the songs must be sung in every assembly, because a single assembly is neither specified nor implied. Singing every type of song at one assembly is permitted, but not required by the statement. Since there is nothing that logically requires that every type of song be required at every service, then you cannot bind what God has not bound. If I sing two hymns this Sunday a psalm two Sundays from now and and a spiritual song 6 months from now, I have obeyed God. If not, why not? No
frequency is specified. You look at it as if the time element in these
commands refer to one service, but that is an assumption. Nothing in the context limits this to a single assembly, but is rather descriptive of our conduct in the large.

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We Are to Sing and Make Melody in Our Heart; Why not Sing A Psalm, Hymn and Spiritual Song?

A querist wrote:
Paul writes in Eph 5: 19, “Speaking to one another in psalms and hymns and spiritual songs, singing and making melody in your heart to the Lord.” If the phrase “singing AND making melody in your heart to the Lord” means both singing AND making melody” have to occur in order for an individual to be acceptable to God, then why doesn’t speaking to one another in psalms AND hymns AND spiritual songs” have to occur in order to be acceptable to God?

James replied:
When we speak to one another in songs in our assembly, we obviously have to sing in order to speak. However, when we speak to one another in song, two things are to happen: 1) sing with your mouth and 2) make melody in your heart. The time elment is specified in this command. Sing and make melody are to take place when you speak to one another.

In the command speaking to one another in psalms and hymns and spiritual songs the frequency is not specified. As long as these three (psalms, hymns, and spiritual songs) occur sometimes in your song services, then you are obeying the command. Nothing requires that each time you meet, every one of these types of songs must be sung. The time element is not there.

How would you know if you obeyed the command anyway? The distinction between psalms, hymns and spiritual songs is hotly debated. There is no divinely prescribed list of each song. One song might actually fit the qualifications of all three genres. However, since God did not specify, how are we ever going to know for sure if we are right?

The only way we can establish authority is for God to command it, or we have an example where it was always done, or there is a necessary inference that it must be done. We have authority to speak to one another in songs in our assemblies because God commands it it. History tells us the early church sang at least one hymn before the LS, but when they met in the catacombs they may not have even done that for fear of being heard. Nowhere is a frequency specified for these three types of songs. We are not at liberty to bind where God has not bound.

There is another scripture that gives an example of singing in the assembly (I Cor 14:26). However, Paul only uses the generic term “psalm” to refer to aparently whatever kind of song was sung. We can necessarily infer from Paul’s remarks that multiple psalms were sung in the assembly, but he says nothing regarding hymns and spiritual songs. From Paul’s remarks in I Cor 14:26, Eph 5:19, and Col 3:16, I conclude that as long as the song selection is from the set of psalms, hymns, and spiritual songs, that you can sing as many of whatever type of song that you choose, as long as it is done decently and in order.

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Why Is the Command to Sing Psalms, Hymns and Spiritual Songs Different from Repent and Be Baptized?

As querist wrote:
>IF “believe AND is baptized means an individual has to do both to be saved
>then why doesn’t “speak to one another in psalms AND hymns AND spiritual
>songs mean we have to do all three?

James replied:
Repent and be baptizied is a process that has a result “for forgiveness of sins”. These three things do not have to be done in one service in order to accomplish their objective of forgiving sin and being pleasing to God. One might believe at one service, repent after service was over, and be baptized the next service. No sin has taken place. Why? Because the time element is not specified. One just has to do all of these things in a lifetime in order to be pleasing to God.

Singing to one another in psalms, hymns and spiritual songs is a list of behaviors that are to characterize Christians when we speak to one another. When do we see one another? At the weekly assemblies. We then speak to one another. The command to speak to one another in songs, hymns and spiritual songs does not have a time element in the command. It is a list of behaviors that is to characterize Christian behavior. It does not necessarily have to happen every time we speak, but it does have to be included in our behavior over time. Our Christian walk has to include this.

Here’s a practical example. When you sing, you necessarily choose one of the three. Are you disobeying God because you chose a psalm instead of a hymn or spiritual song? No. Why? Because it is an authorized behavior, the frequency of which is not specified. If you only sing two songs, one of which is a psalm and the other a hymn, have you disobeyed God? No. Why? Because the frequency of the use of these three types of speaking is not specified. If you include all of them in your speaking to one another over time, you are obeying God. The list is apparently intended to specify the
type of music that is to be used and not specify the frequecy of its use. You are at liberty to use any song from this list as long as all of them are included at some time during the course of your various assemblies over the Lord’s days.

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Must We Have At Least One Song, Hymn and Spiritual Song in Each Service?

The element that is missing from the Col Eph passages is the time factor. You are assuming that the time factor is one service. The context does not require that. If in your services you use psalms, hymns and spiritual songs, you are keeping the commandment. It is like David B pointed out about pure religion is to visit the fatherless and widows in their affliction. Do you do that every day? With the assumption that it is to be done every day, you could conclude that you were not practicing pure and undefiled religion. However, it seems to me that the time factor is your Christian walk. If you do it as part of your service to God as you have opportunity (Gal 6:10), you are practicing pure and undefiled religion. Likewise, the Col Eph passages require that psalms, hymns and spiritual songs be sung in the assembly as you have opportunity. Over time, you include them all, but the context does not require that all of them are done every service.

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Why Can’t I Use ‘How Much Is That Doggie In the Window’ in Worship?

A queriest asked:
> You said that the song “How Much is That Doggie in the Window” does not
>fit the bill of what Paul specified.
>
> I need to know if there is a specific verse that says I cannot sing this
>song, for where there is no law, there is no transgression and if I want to
>sing “How Much is That Doggie in the Window,” then I should be able to. (Just kidding!)

How Much Is That Doggie in the Window is excluded by the non-canonical reference, the Martyrdom of Pionius,
Library 3, Section 1, paragraph 2, which says in part, “Thou shalt not sing
doggereal while singing praise to the Lord”. Now Thayer says on G3427 that
the word means “to sing praise with a lyrical reference to canis major”.
Obviously, then, since Canis Major is in the sky and you have to look
through the atmosphere to see it, the pseudonymous author of the Martyrdom
of Pionius had refernce to not using “Doggie in the Window” and all such use
is prohibited. 😉 (Just kidding!)

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Psalms, Hymns and Spiritual Songs

A querist wrote:
>Palms, hymns and spiritiual songs” are three separate and
>distinct categories – each having a common purpose – to praise God and
>edify one another – but accomplishing this purpose in a different method –
>the difference being the difference between a psalm, hymn and spiritual
>song. I’m having a difficult time trying to justify my leaning toward general
>categories when Paul was very specific in naming three different
>categories.

The categories of songs that Paul enumerated are binding. The songs we sing are to limited to the subset of songs that belong to the categories of psalms, hymns and spiritual songs. Bawdy songs, love songs, How much is That Doggie in the Window, and such like, do not fit the bill of what Paul specified. However, nothing in the context requires that the song leader select one or more from each category for each service. The way I read it, the songs selected must come exclusively from these three categories, not that all three categories are required for each service. Early Christian
literature from the first three centuries also specifically concurrs that ordinary love songs are not proper selections for Christian worship.

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